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Health Education

  1. Health Education is
    A. any combination of planned learning experiences using evidence-based practices and/or sound theories that provide the opportunity to acquire knowledge, attitudes, and skills needed to adopt and maintain healthy behaviors
    B. a way to gain a better understanding of the health problem(s) of concern, approaches to reducing or eliminating the health problem, and an understanding of the people for whom the program is intended.
    C. embodied by the behaviors that impact a person’s health.
    D. any planned combination of educational, political, environmental, regulatory, or organizational mechanisms that support actions and conditions of living conducive to the health of individuals, groups, and communities.

1 points 

QUESTION 2

  1. Published in 1979, The Surgeon General’s Report on Health Promotion and Disease Prevention was titled
    A. Healthy Living
    B. Living Healthy
    C. Healthy People
    D. People’s Health

1 points 

QUESTION 3

  1. Which of the following is not a modifiable risk behavior?
    A. lack of physical activity
    B. poor nutrition
    C. tobacco use
    D. lack of access to potable water

1 points 

QUESTION 4

  1. All of the following are true of health education specialists EXCEPT
    A. they are able to diagnose health conditions by assessing symptoms and data
    B. they have met, at a minimum, baccalaureate-level required health education academic preparation qualifications.
    C. they serve in a variety of settings.
    D. they use appropriate educational strategies and methods to facilitate the development of policies, procedures, interventions, and systems conducive to the health of individuals, groups, and communities.

1 points 

QUESTION 5

  1. Which of the following would best replace the ‘?’ in the figure?
    A. Health Outcomes
    B. Health Care Planning
    C. Health Education
    D. Health Care Industry

1 points 

QUESTION 6

  1. Primary prevention includes
    A. measures that forestall the onset of a disease, illness, or injury.
    B. activities directed at early diagnosis, referral, and prompt treatment.
    C. measures that lead to early diagnosis and prompt treatment of a disease, illness, or injury to minimize progression of health problem.
    D. activities directed at rehabilitation to return a person to maximum usefulness.

1 points 

QUESTION 7

  1. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of health promotion?
    A. Health status can be changed.
    B. Behavior can be changed, and those changes can influence health.
    C. Initiating and maintaining behavior change is straightforward if done methodically.
    D. For health behavior change to be permanent, an individual must be motivated and ready for change.

1 points 

QUESTION 8

  1. All of the following are program planning models in health promotion EXCEPT
    A. MAP-IT
    B. MAPP
    C. CHANGE
    D. PROCEED-PRECEDE

1 points 

QUESTION 9

  1. The figure depicts 
    A. the Evidence-Based Planning Framework for Public Health.
    B. Intervention mapping.
    C. the SMART model.
    D. the MAPP model.

1 points 

QUESTION 10

  1. Which of the following models is geared towards social marketing and, generally, does a better job of orienting program interventions to the preferences of consumers?
    A. SMART
    B. CHANGE
    C. MAP-IT
    D. PATCH

1 points 

QUESTION 11

  1. All of the following are factors that predict success in cultivating Healthy Communities EXCEPT
    A. providing a venue for local communities to learn effective strategies.
    B. mobilizing networks for change.
    C. global investment in communities.
    D. providing tools to communities to achieve health equity and prevent chronic disease.

1 points 

QUESTION 12

  1. Which of the following is not one of the three Fs of program planning?
    A. fluidity
    B. formidability
    C. flexibility
    D. functionality

1 points 

QUESTION 13

  1. A needs assessment
    A. is the process of identifying, analyzing, and prioritizing the needs of a priority population.
    B. allocates individual, organizational, and community resources to various health education programs.
    C. enhances the resources of individuals, organizations, and communities to improve their effectiveness to take action.
    D. mobilizes the priority population to change the present situation in favor of a more desirable one.

1 points 

QUESTION 14

  1. All of the following questions should be answered after completing a needs assessment EXCEPT
    A. Why do these needs exist?
    B. What is currently being done to resolve identified needs?
    C. What is the financial cost of education the priority population?
    D. What factors create or determine the need?

1 points 

QUESTION 15

  1. Which of the following is a governmental agency or organization?
    A. American Heart Association
    B. Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration
    C. American Cancer Society
    D. Henry J. Kaiser Family Foundation

1 points 

QUESTION 16

  1. One advantage of collecting primary data from a face-to-face interview is that it is
    A. inexpensive.
    B. quick.
    C. flexible.
    D. convenient.

1 points 

QUESTION 17

  1. Which of the following statements about the Delphi technique is false?
    A. The process requires a significant time commitment on behalf of the participant.
    B. The process allows for improved response quality and quantity.
    C. The process allows for increased opportunities for clarification.
    D. The process generates consensus through a series of questionnaires.

1 points 

QUESTION 18

  1. The database produced by the American Psychological Association that provides peer-reviewed literature in the behavioral sciences and mental health is known as
    A. PSYCINFO.
    B. ERIC.
    C. PUBMED.
    D. MEDLINE.

1 points 

QUESTION 19

  1. The focus group approach
    A. Is a highly structured process in which a few knowledgeable representatives of the priority population are asked to qualify and quantify specific needs.
    B. is used to obtain information about the feelings, opinions, perceptions, insights, beliefs, misconceptions, attitudes, and receptivity of a group of people concerning an issue.
    C. involves collecting data from windshield tours or walk-throughs of a particular location.
    D. brings together people from the priority population to discuss what they see as their group’s problems and needs.

1 points 

QUESTION 20

  1. Which of the following is not a component of the BPR Model?
    A. effectiveness of the possible interventions
    B. propriety, economics, acceptability, resources, and legality (PEARL)
    C. size of the problem
    D. feasibility of the problem solutions.

1 points 

QUESTION 21

  1. Collaboration with, and inquiry of, those affected by an issue being studied for the purposes of education and effecting change is known as
    A. unobtrusive observation.
    B. capacity building.
    C. participatory research.
    D. obtrusive observation.

1 points 

QUESTION 22

  1. All of the following are true regarding a Health Impact Assessment (HIA) EXCEPT
    A. The major steps of an HIA involve screening, testing, and evaluating.
    B. The process considers input from stakeholders to determine the potential effects of a proposed policy, plan, program, or project on the health of a population
    C. The process provides recommendations on monitoring and managing the effects of a proposed policy, plan, program, or project on the health of a population.
    D. An HIA is a process that uses multiple data sources and analytic methods

1 points 

QUESTION 23

  1. The process of applying numerical or narrative data from an instrument to objects, events, or people is known as
    A. sampling.
    B. data analysis.
    C. metric application.
    D. measurement.

1 points 

QUESTION 24

  1. A method that accurately measures what it is intended to measure is considered
    A. reliable.
    B. specific.
    C. sensitive.
    D. valid.

1 points 

QUESTION 25

  1. Quantitative measures
    A. provide insights into behaviors.
    B. are exploratory.
    C. are objective.
    D. provide depth of understanding.

1 points 

QUESTION 26

  1. Which of the following is not related to gauging the reliability of an instrument?
    A. internal consistency estimates
    B. stability estimates
    C. equivalence estimates
    D. criterion-related estimates

1 points 

QUESTION 27

  1. Which of the following would best replace the ‘?’ in the figure?
    A. priority population
    B. sample
    C. community of interest
    D. study population

1 points 

QUESTION 28

  1. Increasing the likelihood that the sample is representative of the survey population occurs with
    A. convenience selection.
    B. random selection.
    C. homogeneous selection.
    D. snowball selection.

1 points 

QUESTION 29

  1. Concurrent validity
    A. is the extent to which two measures which purport to be measuring the same topic correlate.
    B. Is concerned with whether the instrument is measuring the underlying construct.
    C. means that the score on a measure can predict the present standing or status of a trait, attribute or behavior, or disease status.
    D. requires that the construct should not correlate with dissimilar variables.

1 points 

QUESTION 30

  1. Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of data?
    A. equivalency
    B. validity
    C. specificity
    D. reliability

1 points 

QUESTION 31

  1. All of the following are essential components of a survey EXCEPT
    A. an explanation of the methodology used to analyze the collected data.
    B. instructions for what participants are to do with the survey once completed.
    C. a survey title.
    D. a purpose statement.

1 points 

QUESTION 32

  1. When creating a measurement instrument
    A. use leading questions to guide the respondent’s answer.
    B. avoid questions that are too broad or general.
    C. develop double-barreled questions should be used to obtain twice the amount of information.
    D. use jargon and technical terms to improve participant understanding of the issues.

1 points 

QUESTION 33

  1. The sampling procedure that occurs when the population is divided into subgroups based on key characteristics and subjects are selected from the subgroups at random to ensure representation of the characteristic is known as
    A. proportional stratified sampling.
    B. cluster sampling.
    C. simple random sampling.
    D. nonproportional stratified sampling.

1 points 

QUESTION 34

  1. Maximum variation is a nonprobability sampling procedure that
    A. selects participants who are readily available and easy to reach.
    B. chooses people based on whether they meet pre-established criteria and aims to have a certain number of respondents with specific characteristics.
    C. selects participants who share similar characteristics or traits of interest.
    D. ensures diverse representation of the priority population by selecting a wide variety of people possessing characteristics or experiences.

1 points 

QUESTION 35

  1. A set of procedures used by planners to try out the program on a small group of participants prior to actual implementation is known as a
    A. pilot test.
    B. cognitive pretest.
    C. focus group.
    D. sampling frame.

1 points 

QUESTION 36

  1. All of the following are outcome verbs for objectives EXCEPT
    A. analyze
    B. classify
    C. facilitate
    D. reproduce

1 points 

QUESTION 37

  1. A short narrative that describes the purpose and focus of a program is known as
    A. a mission statement.
    B. a vision statement.
    C. an objective.
    D. a goal.

1 points 

QUESTION 38

  1. Broad statements that describe the expected outcomes of the program as known as
    A. goals.
    B. objectives.
    C. mission statements.
    D. targets.

1 points 

QUESTION 39

  1. Process objectives
    A. are the ultimate objectives of a program and are aimed at changes in health status, social benefits, risk factors, or quality of life.
    B. are the daily tasks, activities, and work plans that lead to the accomplishment of all other levels of objectives.
    C. are the educational or learning tools needed in order to achieve the desired behavior change.
    D. outline the nonbehavioral causes of a health problem that present in the social, physical, psychological, economic, service, and/or political environments.

1 points 

QUESTION 40

  1. Precise statements of intended outcome are
    A. objectives.
    B. goals.
    C. mission statements.
    D. targets.

1 points 

QUESTION 41

  1. Which of the following is not a type learning objective?
    A. awareness
    B. behavioral
    C. knowledge
    D. attitude

1 points 

QUESTION 42

  1. The ultimate expected impact of the program or intervention is referred to as the
    A. program implementatin.
    B. consensus objective.
    C. long-term objective.
    D. program purpose.

1 points 

QUESTION 43

  1. All of the following are questions to be answered when developing objectives EXCEPT
    A. Do the objectives align with the current political goals of the nation?
    B. Can the objective be realized during the life of the program or within a reasonable time thereafter?
    C. Do the objectives violate any of the rights of those who are involved?
    D. Can the objective be realistically achieved?

1 points 

QUESTION 44

  1. The action, behavior, or something else that will change as a result of the program is known as the
    A. outcome.
    B. reaction.
    C. criterion.
    D. condition.

1 points 

QUESTION 45

  1. Cats are
    A. fantastic.
    B. incredible.
    C. adorable.
    D. amazing.

1 points (Extra Credit) 

QUESTION 46

  1. In order, what are the five steps in the generalized model

2.5 points 

QUESTION 47

  1. Why is it important to use a model when planning?

2 points 

QUESTION 48

  1. Explain the difference between primary and secondary data.

QUESTION 49

  1. How has health and healthcare in the United States changed over the past century? Support your answer with specific examples.

QUESTION 50

  1. What are two items that should be addressed when developing a program rationale?

QUESTION 51

  1. What is a Mission Statement, and why is it important? How is a Mission Statement different from a Vision Statement?

QUESTION 52

  1. Describe two reasons that is it important to conduct a literature review.
     

QUESTION 53

  1. In order, what are the six steps to conducting a needs assessment?

QUESTION 54

  1. Explain the degree to which you believe consumers or members of the community should be involved in the planning process. Do you believe they should own or control the process?

QUESTION 55

  1. List the four levels of measurement in order and provide an example of each.

QUESTION 56

  1. Identify two probability sampling procedures and provide a brief description of each. 

QUESTION 57

  1. Identify one advantage and one disadvantage of using an existing measurement instrument?

QUESTION 58

  1. What is bias in data collection? Identify three ways in which bias can be controlled.

QUESTION 59

  1. What are two ethical issues are associated with measurement?

QUESTION 60

  1. What are the four necessary elements of an objective?
  2. QUESTION 61
  1. Assume that you are charged with the responsibility of collecting data from all the students on your campus who are interested in taking non-traditional physical activity classes such as yoga, spinning, or kickboxing. You do not have access to a list of students on campus that you can use as a sampling frame. Explain how you would obtain a representative sample from this population. Would probability or non-probability sampling be best? What are drawbacks and advantages of the method you selected?

QUESTION 62

  1. What are the characteristics of a SMART objective?

QUESTION 63

  1. What is a health impact assessment and how could it affect a needs assessment?

QUESTION 64

 

  1. Assume that you are a health education specialist working in a primary care clinic. Based on some data provided by personnel at the local hospital regarding birth outcomes for the clinic patients, your supervisor has asked that you create a new program to decrease the percentage of female patients of childbearing age who smoke. After completing a needs assessment you have found that the highest rate of smokers was among those patients who were 18–24 years of age, covered by a health insurance plan, and have more than one child. In addition, the average number of cigarettes smoked per day by the patients was 22. Write a mission statement, a goal, and an objective to help reach the stated goal.

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